Psychology
MCQS
A. Behavior
B. Emotions
C. Mental processes
D. Social interactions
Cognitive psychology is concerned with mental processes such as thinking, memory, and problem-solving.
A. Encoding
B. Chunking
C. Retrieval
D. Decay
Chunking involves grouping information into meaningful chunks to enhance memory.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. Jean Piaget
C. Erik Erikson
D. Sigmund Freud
Jean Piaget is known for his influential theory of cognitive development in children.
A. Retrieval
B. Interference
C. Retroactive interference
D. Decay
Retroactive interference occurs when new information interferes with the recall of previously learned information.
A. 5 items
B. 7 items (+/- 2)
C. 10 items
D. Unlimited
Miller proposed that the capacity of short-term memory is around 7 items, plus or minus 2.
A. Acquisition
B. Extinction
C. Spontaneous recovery
D. Generalization
Acquisition is the initial learning phase in classical conditioning.
A. Mental shortcuts
B. Organized knowledge structures
C. Emotional responses
D. Unconscious desires
Schemas are organized knowledge structures that help individuals interpret and understand the world.
A. Primacy effect
B. Recency effect
C. Serial position effect
D. Mnemonic effect
The primacy effect refers to better recall of items at the beginning of a list.
A. Howard Gardner
B. Alfred Binet
C. Lewis Terman
D. Charles Spearman
Howard Gardner proposed the theory of multiple intelligences, recognizing various forms of intelligence.
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. GABA
Acetylcholine plays a crucial role in learning and memory in the brain.
A. Anchoring heuristic
B. Representativeness heuristic
C. Availability heuristic
D. Confirmation bias
The representativeness heuristic involves judging based on how similar something is to a prototype.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. Ivan Pavlov
C. John Watson
D. Albert Bandura
John Watson and Rosalie Rayner conducted the "Little Albert" experiment.
A. Amnesia
B. Decay
C. Forgetting
D. Retrieval failure
Forgetting refers to the inability to recall previously stored information.
A. Triarchic theory
B. Multiple intelligences theory
C. Two-factor theory
D. Spearman's g theory
Spearman's g theory suggests a general factor underlying cognitive abilities.
A. Leon Festinger
B. Stanley Milgram
C. Philip Zimbardo
D. Albert Bandura
Leon Festinger introduced the concept of cognitive dissonance in psychology.
A. Self-serving bias
B. Fundamental attribution error
C. Confirmation bias
D. Halo effect
The self-serving bias involves attributing successes to internal factors and failures to external factors.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Identity vs. Role Confusion
The central conflict in adolescence is identity vs. role confusion.
A. Albert Bandura
B. John Bowlby
C. Erik Erikson
D. Lev Vygotsky
Albert Bandura conducted the Bobo doll experiment, illustrating observational learning.
A. Retrieval
B. Encoding
C. Storage
D. Decay
Encoding is the process of converting information into a form that can be stored in memory.
A. Noam Chomsky
B. Alan Baddeley
C. Elizabeth Loftus
D. Hermann Ebbinghaus
Alan Baddeley is known for his research on working memory, a system responsible for temporarily holding and manipulating information.
A. Shallow processing
B. Deep processing
C. Rehearsal
D. Maintenance rehearsal
Deep processing, which involves meaningful analysis, leads to better long-term memory.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine
Serotonin is associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression.
A. Confirmation bias
B. Hindsight bias
C. Anchoring bias
D. Availability bias
Confirmation bias involves focusing on information that confirms existing beliefs.
A. Ivan Pavlov
B. John Watson
C. B.F. Skinner
D. Albert Bandura
B.F. Skinner is known for the theory of operant conditioning.
A. Encoding failure
B. Retrieval failure
C. Decay
D. Interference
The "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon is a type of retrieval failure.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
The stage of industry vs. inferiority focuses on developing a sense of competence.
A. Encoding
B. Retrieval
C. Storage
D. Decay
Retrieval is the process of bringing stored information back into conscious awareness.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Formal operational stage is when abstract and logical thinking develops, according to Piaget.
A. Philip Zimbardo
B. Stanley Milgram
C. Solomon Asch
D. John Watson
The Stanford prison experiment was conducted by Philip Zimbardo.
A. Primacy effect
B. Recency effect
C. Serial position effect
D. Mnemonic effect
The recency effect refers to better recall of the most recent items in a list.
A. Confirmation bias
B. Availability bias
C. Anchoring bias
D. Hindsight bias
Confirmation bias involves perceiving and attending to information that supports existing beliefs.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. Paul Baltes
Paul Baltes proposed the idea of cognitive development in adulthood, emphasizing lifelong growth.
A. Focus on multiple tasks simultaneously
B. Filter out irrelevant information in a noisy environment
C. Recall information after a delay
D. Remember details from a party
The cocktail party effect is the ability to focus on relevant information in a noisy environment.
A. System 1
B. System 2
C. Central executive
D. Working memory
System 1 is fast, automatic, and operates with little conscious effort, according to the dual-process model.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. Ivan Pavlov
C. Edward Tolman
D. John B. Watson
Edward Tolman introduced the concept of latent learning, highlighting learning without immediate reinforcement.
A. Thinking about one's own thinking
B. Group decision-making
C. Memory retrieval strategies
D. Social cognition
Metacognition involves thinking about one's own thinking processes and cognitive abilities.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Norepinephrine
Dopamine is associated with reward, pleasure, addiction, and motivation in the brain.
A. Sensory memory
B. Short-term memory
C. Long-term memory
D. Working memory
Sensory memory is responsible for transforming sensory input into a form for processing by the brain.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Gestalt therapy
Cognitive restructuring is commonly used in cognitive-behavioral therapy to change negative thought patterns.
A. Primacy effect
B. Recency effect
C. Flashbulb memory
D. Echoic memory
Flashbulb memory is the phenomenon of remembering emotionally charged or significant events.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Egocentrism is a key feature of the preoperational stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development.
A. Encoding
B. Retrieval
C. Storage
D. Decay
Storage is the mental process of maintaining information in memory over time.
A. Rehearsal
B. Semantic processing
C. Structural processing
D. Phonemic processing
Semantic processing, focusing on the meaning, involves the deepest level of processing.
A. Elizabeth Loftus
B. Philip Zimbardo
C. Solomon Asch
D. Stanley Milgram
Elizabeth Loftus is known for her research on eyewitness testimony and the misinformation effect.
A. Howard Gardner
B. Charles Spearman
C. Robert Sternberg
D. Alfred Binet
Robert Sternberg proposed the triarchic theory of intelligence, emphasizing analytical, creative, and practical intelligence.
A. Sensory memory
B. Short-term memory
C. Long-term memory
D. Working memory
Short-term memory has a limited capacity and holds information for a brief duration.
A. Motivation driven by external rewards
B. Motivation driven by internal factors and personal enjoyment
C. Motivation influenced by peer pressure
D. Motivation based on social norms
Intrinsic motivation is driven by internal factors and personal enjoyment rather than external rewards.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. Lawrence Kohlberg
Lev Vygotsky introduced the concept of the zone of proximal development in cognitive development.
A. Retroactive interference
B. Proactive interference
C. Encoding failure
D. Decay
Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information interferes with the recall of new information.
A. Physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation
B. Behavioral responses and emotional expression
C. Genetic predisposition and environmental factors
D. Social learning and reinforcement
The two-factor theory of emotion suggests that emotional experiences result from physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation.
A. John Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
Ivan Pavlov is known for the concept of classical conditioning, demonstrated with dogs and salivation.
A. Perception
B. Cognition
C. Spatial cognition
D. Memory consolidation
Spatial cognition involves forming a mental representation of the layout of one's environment.
A. Sensory memory
B. Short-term memory
C. Long-term memory
D. Central executive
The central executive is responsible for controlling attention and coordinating information in the information processing model.
A. Egocentrism
B. Object permanence
C. Conservation
D. Reversibility
Object permanence is the realization that objects continue to exist even when not directly perceived, according to Piaget.
A. Encoding
B. Retrieval
C. Storage
D. Decay
Retrieval is the process of bringing stored information back into conscious awareness.
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Carl Rogers
C. Abraham Maslow
D. John Watson
Sigmund Freud conducted the "Little Hans" case study, exploring the development of phobias in children.
A. Central route
B. Peripheral route
C. Emotional route
D. Social route
The central route to persuasion involves careful consideration of the message content and logic.
A. Beliefs align with actions
B. Beliefs conflict with actions
C. Cognitive abilities are enhanced
D. Memories are vivid
Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is a conflict between beliefs and actions, leading to discomfort.
A. Early childhood
B. Adolescence
C. Young adulthood
D. Middle adulthood
The primary conflict of "intimacy vs. isolation" occurs during young adulthood, according to Erik Erikson.
A. Primacy effect
B. Recency effect
C. Serial position effect
D. Mnemonic effect
The serial position effect involves remembering information presented at the beginning and end of a list more easily.
A. Genetic factors vs. environmental influences
B. Biological vs. psychological development
C. Cognitive vs. emotional development
D. Early vs. late maturation
Nature vs. nurture debates the relative impact of genetic factors and environmental influences on development.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
The primary crisis in infancy is trust vs. mistrust, according to Erikson's psychosocial theory.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lawrence Kohlberg
D. Lev Vygotsky
Lawrence Kohlberg is known for his stages of moral development theory.
A. 1-2 years
B. 2-3 years
C. 3-4 years
D. 4-5 years
The "terrible twos" stage occurs around ages 2-3, marked by increased independence and tantrums.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John Bowlby
C. Mary Ainsworth
D. Harry Harlow
Mary Ainsworth studied attachment patterns in infants, building on John Bowlby's work.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
The formal operational stage, according to Piaget, involves abstract and hypothetical thinking.
A. Maturation
B. Attachment
C. Assimilation
D. Egocentrism
Attachment is the emotional bond between an infant and their primary caregiver.
A. Infancy
B. Toddlerhood
C. Early childhood
D. Adolescence
Stranger anxiety peaks during the toddlerhood stage, around 12-18 months of age.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Identity vs. Role Confusion
C. Generativity vs. Stagnation
D. Integrity vs. Despair
The primary crisis in adolescence, according to Erikson, is identity vs. role confusion.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. Lawrence Kohlberg
Lev Vygotsky introduced the concept of the zone of proximal development.
A. Activity theory
B. Disengagement theory
C. Continuity theory
D. Stage theory
Disengagement theory proposes that aging involves a withdrawal or disengagement from society.
A. Generativity vs. Stagnation
B. Integrity vs. Despair
C. Autonomy vs. Shame
D. Intimacy vs. Isolation
The primary crisis in middle adulthood, according to Erikson, is generativity vs. stagnation.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. Sigmund Freud
Erik Erikson introduced the psychosocial stages of development, focusing on social interactions.
A. Authoritative
B. Permissive
C. Authoritarian
D. Neglectful
Authoritarian parenting is characterized by high demands and low responsiveness.
A. Disengagement theory
B. Activity theory
C. Socioemotional selectivity theory
D. Continuity theory
Socioemotional selectivity theory introduces the idea of selective optimization with compensation in aging.
A. Pre-conventional morality
B. Conventional morality
C. Post-conventional morality
D. Autonomous morality
The pre-conventional level of morality involves decisions based on self-interest and avoiding punishment, according to Kohlberg.
A. Infancy
B. Adolescence
C. Early adulthood
D. Middle adulthood
Identity diffusion is a term associated with the adolescence stage in Erikson's theory.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
The concrete operational stage, according to Piaget, involves concrete and logical thinking.
A. Centration
B. Conservation
C. Egocentrism
D. Assimilation
Centration is the tendency to focus on one aspect and neglect others, according to Piaget.
A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativity vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Autonomy vs. Shame
The primary crisis in late adulthood, according to Erikson, is integrity vs. despair.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. John Bowlby
Erik Erikson proposed the eight psychosocial stages of development, each associated with a different crisis.
A. Childhood
B. Adolescence
C. Early adulthood
D. Middle adulthood
The identity vs. role confusion stage occurs during adolescence, according to Erikson.
A. Autonomy
B. Generativity
C. Trust
D. Wisdom
The successful resolution of the integrity vs. despair crisis leads to a sense of wisdom, according to Erikson.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. Paul Baltes
Paul Baltes introduced the concept of cognitive development in adulthood, emphasizing lifelong growth.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Egocentrism is a key feature of the preoperational stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development.
A. Separation anxiety
B. Stranger anxiety
C. Object permanence
D. Assimilation
Separation anxiety is the emotional distress experienced when separated from a primary caregiver, according to attachment theory.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John Bowlby
C. Mary Ainsworth
D. Harry Harlow
Mary Ainsworth introduced the "strange situation" as a method to assess attachment patterns in infants.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
C. Identity vs. Role Confusion
D. Generativity vs. Stagnation
The primary crisis in early adulthood, according to Erikson, is intimacy vs. isolation.
A. Accommodation
B. Assimilation
C. Equilibration
D. Object permanence
Assimilation is the process of fitting new information into existing cognitive schemas, according to Piaget.
A. Authoritative
B. Permissive
C. Authoritarian
D. Neglectful
Authoritative parenting is characterized by high responsiveness and high demands, creating a supportive environment.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
The ability to mentally reverse actions and understand relationships develops in the concrete operational stage.
A. Identity vs. Role Confusion
B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
C. Generativity vs. Stagnation
D. Integrity vs. Despair
The primary crisis in middle adulthood, according to Erikson, is generativity vs. stagnation.
A. Urie Bronfenbrenner
B. Lev Vygotsky
C. Erik Erikson
D. Lawrence Kohlberg
Urie Bronfenbrenner is associated with the ecological systems theory, focusing on environmental influences on development.
A. Identity vs. Role Confusion
B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
C. Generativity vs. Stagnation
D. Integrity vs. Despair
The primary crisis in late adolescence, according to Erikson, is identity vs. role confusion.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
The preoperational stage is characterized by the ability to represent objects by images and symbols, along with egocentric thought.
A. Autonomy vs. Shame
B. Initiative vs. Guilt
C. Trust vs. Mistrust
D. Identity vs. Role Confusion
The primary crisis in early childhood, according to Erikson, is initiative vs. guilt.
A. Authoritative
B. Permissive
C. Authoritarian
D. Neglectful
Neglectful parenting is characterized by low responsiveness and low demands, leading to a lack of emotional support.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. John Bowlby
Erik Erikson introduced the concept of the eight stages of psychosocial development.
A. Initiative vs. Guilt
B. Industry vs. Inferiority
C. Identity vs. Role Confusion
D. Intimacy vs. Isolation
The primary crisis in late childhood, according to Erikson, is industry vs. inferiority.
A. Emotional intelligence
B. Emotional awareness
C. Emotional expression
D. Emotional regulation
Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to perceive, understand, and regulate emotions.
A. Authoritative
B. Permissive
C. Authoritarian
D. Neglectful
Permissive parenting is characterized by high responsiveness and low demands, resulting in a permissive and indulgent environment.
A. Pre-conventional morality
B. Conventional morality
C. Post-conventional morality
D. Autonomous morality
The conventional level of morality involves decisions based on societal rules and the approval of others, according to Kohlberg.
A. Attachment
B. Intimacy
C. Cohesion
D. Companionship
Intimacy refers to the strong emotional connection and affectional tie towards an intimate partner.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. John Bowlby
Erik Erikson introduced the concept of psychosocial moratorium in the exploration of different roles and possibilities.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
The formal operational stage, according to Piaget, involves abstract and hypothetical thinking.
A. Accommodation
B. Assimilation
C. Equilibration
D. Object permanence
Accommodation is the process of changing existing cognitive structures to accommodate new information, according to Piaget.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
The primary crisis in infancy, according to Erikson, is trust vs. mistrust.
A. John Bowlby
B. Diana Baumrind
C. Mary Ainsworth
D. Urie Bronfenbrenner
Diana Baumrind is known for the concept of parenting styles, including authoritative, permissive, authoritarian, and neglectful styles.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Adolescent egocentrism is associated with the formal operational stage in Piaget's theory.
A. Attachment
B. Intimacy
C. Bonding
D. Socialization
Bonding refers to the emotional and psychological closeness between individuals, such as a child and their primary caregiver.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
C. Identity vs. Role Confusion
D. Generativity vs. Stagnation
The primary crisis in early adulthood, according to Erikson, is intimacy vs. isolation.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. John Bowlby
Lev Vygotsky emphasized the sociocultural environment and cultural tools in cognitive development.
A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativity vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Autonomy vs. Shame
The primary crisis in late adulthood, according to Erikson, is integrity vs. despair.
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Lawrence Kohlberg
D. Urie Bronfenbrenner
Lawrence Kohlberg introduced the concept of moral reasoning and stages of moral development.
A. Initiative vs. Guilt
B. Industry vs. Inferiority
C. Trust vs. Mistrust
D. Autonomy vs. Shame
The primary crisis in middle childhood, according to Erikson, is industry vs. inferiority.
A. Authoritative
B. Permissive
C. Authoritarian
D. Neglectful
Authoritative parenting is characterized by a balanced approach with warmth, support, and clear expectations.
A. Infancy
B. Adolescence
C. Early adulthood
D. Middle adulthood
Role confusion is associated with the adolescence stage in Erikson's psychosocial development.
A. Initiative vs. Guilt
B. Industry vs. Inferiority
C. Trust vs. Mistrust
D. Autonomy vs. Shame
The primary crisis in late childhood, according to Erikson, is industry vs. inferiority.
A. Sympathy
B. Empathy
C. Compassion
D. Apathy
Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person.
A. Identity vs. Role Confusion
B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
C. Generativity vs. Stagnation
D. Integrity vs. Despair
The primary crisis in late adolescence, according to Erikson, is identity vs. role confusion.
A. Understanding cultural influences
B. Diagnosing and treating mental disorders
C. Conducting personality assessments
D. Studying cognitive processes
The primary goal of clinical psychology is to diagnose and treat mental disorders.
A. Psychodynamic
B. Behavioral
C. Humanistic
D. Biopsychosocial
The biopsychosocial approach considers biological, psychological, and social factors in understanding and treating mental health issues.
A. Identifying cultural influences
B. Predicting future behavior
C. Diagnosing mental disorders
D. Conducting experimental research
The primary purpose of a clinical assessment is to diagnose mental disorders.
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Gestalt therapy
Psychodynamic therapy emphasizes unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences.
A. Projective test
B. Intelligence test
C. Personality inventory
D. Mood assessment
The Beck Depression Inventory is a self-report measure used for assessing mood, specifically depression.
A. Descriptive criteria for mental disorders
B. Therapeutic interventions for disorders
C. Personality assessments
D. Historical perspectives on mental health
The DSM-5 provides descriptive criteria for various mental disorders.
A. Identifying cultural influences
B. Describing personality traits
C. Identifying the presence of a mental disorder
D. Assessing cognitive abilities
Diagnosis in clinical psychology involves identifying the presence of a mental disorder.
A. Albert Bandura
B. Aaron Beck
C. Carl Rogers
D. Albert Ellis
Albert Ellis is considered the founder of cognitive therapy and developed Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT).
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Gestalt therapy
Transference is a concept commonly associated with psychodynamic therapy.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Phobia
Phobia is characterized by persistent, irrational fears and avoidance of specific objects or situations.
A. Assessing intelligence
B. Projective testing
C. Diagnosing personality disorders
D. Evaluating mood disorders
The MMPI is commonly used for diagnosing personality disorders and psychopathology.
A. Unconscious conflicts
B. Cognitive distortions
C. Changing observable behaviors
D. Enhancing self-awareness
Behavioral therapy focuses on changing observable behaviors through conditioning and learning principles.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Acetylcholine
Serotonin is often implicated in mood disorders, and medications targeting it are prescribed for depression.
A. The presence of multiple symptoms
B. The co-occurrence of two or more disorders
C. The severity of a single disorder
D. The duration of symptoms
Comorbidity refers to the co-occurrence of two or more disorders in an individual.
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Gestalt therapy
Psychodynamic therapy focuses on uncovering and exploring unconscious conflicts to gain insight into behavior.
A. The client's feelings toward the therapist
B. The therapist's feelings toward the client
C. The client's unconscious conflicts
D. The therapeutic alliance
Countertransference refers to the therapist's feelings toward the client, which may impact the therapeutic process.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Behavior therapy
Behavior therapy is based on the idea that maladaptive behaviors are learned and can be replaced through conditioning.
A. Assessing personality
B. Projective testing
C. Assessing intelligence
D. Evaluating mood disorders
The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales are used for assessing intelligence in individuals.
A. Catastrophizing
B. All-or-nothing thinking
C. Personalization
D. Overgeneralization
All-or-nothing thinking involves viewing situations in only two categories, without recognizing any middle ground.
A. Changing maladaptive behaviors
B. Enhancing self-awareness
C. Developing insight into unconscious conflicts
D. Emotion regulation and interpersonal effectiveness
Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses on emotion regulation and interpersonal effectiveness.
A. Antipsychotics
B. Antidepressants
C. Anxiolytics
D. Mood stabilizers
Anxiolytics are medications commonly prescribed to alleviate symptoms of anxiety disorders.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Behavior therapy
Humanistic therapy emphasizes personal responsibility, freedom of choice, and self-actualization.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. Carl Rogers
C. Albert Bandura
D. Ivan Pavlov
Client-centered therapy is associated with Carl Rogers, emphasizing empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and persistent concern about having more attacks.
A. Enhancing self-awareness
B. Identifying cognitive distortions
C. Reducing avoidance behaviors
D. Improving interpersonal effectiveness
The primary goal of exposure therapy is to reduce avoidance behaviors in anxiety disorders.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Behavior therapy
Cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on challenging and changing maladaptive thought patterns.
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Autism spectrum disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Neurodevelopmental disorders include conditions such as autism spectrum disorder.
A. Providing therapy to individuals
B. Educating individuals about psychological principles
C. Diagnosing mental disorders
D. Conducting psychological assessments
Psychoeducation involves educating individuals about psychological principles, coping strategies, and mental health.
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Narcissistic personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Dialectical behavior therapy
Mindfulness is often incorporated into dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), emphasizing emotion regulation and acceptance.
A. Behavioral interventions
B. Cognitive restructuring
C. Medication-based treatments
D. Insight-oriented therapy
Psychopharmacology in clinical psychology focuses on medication-based treatments for mental health disorders.
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobia
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive worry and physical symptoms related to various aspects of life.
A. Punishment for undesirable behavior
B. Decreasing the frequency of behavior
C. Increasing the frequency of behavior
D. Extinguishing conditioned responses
Reinforcement in behavior therapy refers to increasing the frequency of behavior by providing positive consequences.
A. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
C. Conduct disorder
D. Oppositional defiant disorder
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.
A. Enhancing self-awareness
B. Identifying unconscious conflicts
C. Challenging and changing maladaptive thought patterns
D. Improving interpersonal relationships
The primary goal of cognitive restructuring is to challenge and change maladaptive thought patterns.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
D. Social anxiety disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive thoughts and ritualistic behaviors.
A. Reinforcing maladaptive behaviors
B. Pairing an anxiety-provoking stimulus with relaxation
C. Punishing undesirable behaviors
D. Shaping behavior through successive approximations
Counterconditioning involves pairing an anxiety-provoking stimulus with relaxation to reduce anxiety responses.
A. Behavior therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Psychodynamic therapy
D. Humanistic therapy
Psychodynamic therapy focuses on gaining insight into unconscious conflicts and resolving emotional issues.
A. Anxiety disorders
B. Mood disorders
C. Eating disorders
D. Psychotic disorders
Anorexia nervosa is a type of eating disorder, specifically within the category of mental disorders related to eating behaviors.
A. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
B. Humanistic therapy
C. Psychodynamic therapy
D. Behavior therapy
Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) emphasizes accepting and validating emotions without judgment or avoidance.
A. Gradual exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli
B. Reinforcing desired behaviors
C. Immediate and intense exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli
D. Shaping behavior through successive approximations
Flooding in behavior therapy involves immediate and intense exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli to reduce anxiety.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine
Dopamine is often implicated in schizophrenia, and medications targeting it are prescribed for treatment.
A. Albert Bandura
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Abraham Maslow
D. Sigmund Freud
Self-efficacy is associated with the social-cognitive theory developed by Albert Bandura.
A. Unwillingness to participate in therapy
B. Therapist's countertransference
C. Client's unconscious defense mechanisms
D. Avoidance of exposure therapy
Resistance in clinical psychology refers to the client's unconscious defense mechanisms that hinder the therapeutic process.
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Narcissistic personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in relationships, self-image, and affect, along with impulsivity.
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Dialectical behavior therapy
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is often used for PTSD and involves gradual exposure to traumatic memories.
A. Changing maladaptive behaviors
B. Modifying thought patterns
C. Gaining insight into unconscious conflicts
D. Enhancing self-esteem
The primary focus of psychodynamic therapy is gaining insight into unconscious conflicts and resolving emotional issues.
A. Antipsychotics
B. Antidepressants
C. Mood stabilizers
D. Anxiolytics
Mood stabilizers are commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder.
A. Reinforcing maladaptive behaviors
B. Increasing the frequency of behavior through the removal of an aversive stimulus
C. Punishing undesirable behaviors
D. Shaping behavior through successive approximations
Negative reinforcement involves increasing the frequency of behavior by removing an aversive stimulus.
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Behavior therapy
Psychodynamic therapy focuses on the role of unconscious conflicts, dreams, and free association in gaining insight into the client's inner world.
A. Salvador Minuchin
B. Virginia Satir
C. Jay Haley
D. Murray Bowen
Double-bind communication is associated with family therapy theorist Virginia Satir.
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobia
Social anxiety disorder is characterized by an intense fear of social situations and scrutiny, leading to avoidance of social interactions.
A. Misinterpreting neutral stimuli as threatening
B. Attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to others
C. Reinforcing desired behaviors
D. Using systematic desensitization to reduce anxiety
Projection in psychodynamic theory involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to others.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Behavior therapy
Humanistic therapy emphasizes self-actualization, personal growth, and fulfilling one's potential.
A. Antidepressants
B. Antipsychotics
C. Anxiolytics
D. Mood stabilizers
Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect associated with the long-term use of antipsychotic medications.
A. Modifying thought patterns
B. Changing maladaptive behaviors
C. Gaining insight into unconscious conflicts
D. Enhancing problem-solving skills
The primary goal of psychodynamic therapy is gaining insight into unconscious conflicts and resolving emotional issues.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine
Medications for major depressive disorder often target serotonin levels in the brain.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Behavior therapy
Automatic thoughts are associated with cognitive-behavioral therapy, where they are targeted for modification.
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Narcissistic personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of violating the rights of others and impulsive behavior.
A. Academic assignments for clients
B. Therapist's assignments for personal development
C. Behavioral exercises for clients to complete between sessions
D. Assignments related to psychodynamic exploration
Homework assignments in cognitive-behavioral therapy involve behavioral exercises for clients to complete between therapy sessions.
A. Biological factors
B. Personal experiences
C. Social situations and others
D. Cognitive processes
Social psychology focuses on understanding how individuals are influenced by social situations and others.
A. Resisting social influence
B. Accepting and adopting group norms
C. Maintaining personal autonomy
D. Seeking approval from authority figures
Conformity involves accepting and adopting group norms or behavior to fit in with others.
A. Self-serving bias
B. Fundamental attribution error
C. Confirmation bias
D. Social facilitation
The self-serving bias involves attributing successes to internal factors and failures to external factors.
A. Electric shocks to another participant
B. Positive reinforcement to another participant
C. Verbal insults to another participant
D. Monetary rewards to another participant
In Milgram's obedience study, participants believed they were delivering electric shocks to another participant.
A. Be more likely to help in a group
B. Be less likely to help in a group
C. Help only in emergencies
D. Always help regardless of the situation
The bystander effect is the tendency for individuals to be less likely to help in a group, assuming others will take responsibility.
A. Lines
B. Words
C. Colors
D. Shapes
In the Asch conformity experiment, participants made judgments about the length of lines.
A. Social loafing
B. Social facilitation
C. Groupthink
D. Deindividuation
Social facilitation is the tendency for individuals to perform better on simple tasks and worse on complex tasks when in the presence of others.
A. Obedience to authority
B. Conformity to group norms
C. Deindividuation in a simulated prison setting
D. Social facilitation in academic settings
The Stanford prison experiment investigated the effects of deindividuation in a simulated prison setting.
A. Self-serving bias
B. Actor-observer bias
C. Fundamental attribution error
D. Groupthink
The fundamental attribution error involves attributing others' behavior to internal factors and one's own behavior to external factors.
A. Social exchange theory
B. Cognitive dissonance theory
C. Social identity theory
D. Social comparison theory
Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that individuals seek to maintain consistency in their beliefs and attitudes and may change them to achieve internal harmony.
A. Prefer familiar stimuli over unfamiliar stimuli
B. Dislike familiar stimuli due to boredom
C. Ignore familiar stimuli in social situations
D. Fear unfamiliar stimuli
The mere exposure effect is the tendency to prefer familiar stimuli over unfamiliar stimuli.
A. Group members thinking independently
B. Group members suppressing dissenting opinions for group harmony
C. Group members competing with each other
D. Group members avoiding social interactions
Groupthink involves group members suppressing dissenting opinions for the sake of group harmony.
A. Individual personality traits
B. Group membership and categorization
C. Intrinsic motivation
D. Situational factors
Social identity emphasizes the role of group membership and categorization in shaping individuals' identities.
A. Social facilitation
B. Social loafing
C. Group polarization
D. Deindividuation
Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to exert less effort when working collectively on a task, assuming others will compensate.
A. Making a large request, followed by a smaller request
B. Making a small request, followed by a larger request
C. Making a single large request
D. Making a single small request
The foot-in-the-door technique involves making a small request followed by a larger request, increasing the likelihood of compliance.
A. In-group bias
B. Out-group homogeneity
C. Social comparison
D. Reciprocity
In-group bias is the tendency to favor members of one's own group over members of other groups.
A. Laws and regulations set by governments
B. Unwritten rules and expectations within a group or society
C. Personal preferences of individuals
D. The influence of media on social behavior
Social norms are unwritten rules and expectations within a group or society that guide behavior.
A. Social exchange theory
B. Social identity theory
C. Social comparison theory
D. Equity theory
Social comparison theory suggests that individuals are motivated to maintain a positive self-concept and will evaluate themselves favorably compared to others.
A. Individuals achieve their goals through hard work
B. Expectations about others lead to behaviors that elicit the expected outcome
C. Group members avoid conflict
D. Individuals conform to group norms
The self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when expectations about others lead to behaviors that elicit the expected outcome.
A. Door-in-the-face technique
B. Foot-in-the-door technique
C. Reciprocity
D. Social facilitation
The foot-in-the-door technique suggests that individuals are more likely to comply with a request if it is preceded by a smaller, related request.
A. The tendency to conform to stereotypes
B. The fear of confirming negative stereotypes about one's group
C. The belief in positive stereotypes
D. The automatic activation of stereotypes
Stereotype threat is the fear of confirming negative stereotypes about one's group, which can impact performance.
A. The tendency to conform to group norms
B. The tendency to resist social influence
C. Agreeing to a request or suggestion
D. Group decision-making processes
Compliance in social psychology refers to agreeing to a request or suggestion.
A. Tendency to perform better on simple tasks in the presence of others
B. Tendency to perform worse on complex tasks in the presence of others
C. Influence of group norms on individual behavior
D. Reduction of social anxiety in group settings
Social facilitation is the tendency to perform better on simple tasks in the presence of others.
A. Self-serving bias
B. Fundamental attribution error
C. Confirmation bias
D. In-group bias
The self-serving bias involves attributing one's own successes to internal factors and failures to external factors.
A. Conform to group norms
B. Make decisions that are more extreme than the initial individual inclinations
C. Avoid conflict within the group
D. Exhibit social loafing
Group polarization is the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial individual inclinations of group members.
A. Authority figures
B. Group size
C. Social norms
D. Unanimity of the group
Solomon Asch's conformity experiments focused on the influence of the unanimity of the group on individual conformity.
A. Actor-observer bias
B. Self-serving bias
C. Fundamental attribution error
D. Confirmation bias
The fundamental attribution error involves attributing others' behavior to internal factors even when external factors may explain the behavior.
A. The tendency to conform to group norms
B. The loss of self-awareness and individual identity in a group
C. The fear of confirming negative stereotypes
D. The automatic activation of stereotypes
Deindividuation is the loss of self-awareness and individual identity in a group, leading to a reduction in inhibitions.
A. Social loafing
B. Social influence
C. Social facilitation
D. Social comparison
Social influence refers to the adjustment of individual behavior to align with the behavior of a group or society.
A. Stereotype threat
B. Social loafing
C. Group polarization
D. In-group bias
The jigsaw classroom is a technique aimed at reducing in-group bias by promoting cooperation and interdependence among diverse group members.
A. Gain social approval and avoid rejection
B. Seek accurate information from others
C. Challenge existing group norms
D. Resist conformity pressures
Normative social influence is based on the desire to gain social approval and avoid rejection by conforming to group norms.
A. Social facilitation
B. Social loafing
C. Groupthink
D. Social exchange
Social loafing is the tendency for people to exert less effort in a group than when working individually on a task.
A. Social exchange theory
B. Social identity theory
C. Social comparison theory
D. Equity theory
Social identity theory emphasizes the importance of ingroups (groups to which an individual belongs) and outgroups (groups to which an individual does not belong).
A. In-group bias
B. Out-group homogeneity
C. Actor-observer bias
D. Self-serving bias
The self-serving bias involves attributing successes to internal factors and blaming external factors for failures, especially when interacting with outgroup members.
A. One's emotions are easily perceived by others
B. Group decisions are transparent and easily understood
C. Social norms are universally transparent
D. Illusions are transparent and easily seen through
The illusion of transparency is the belief that one's emotions are more easily perceived by others than they actually are.
A. Conform to group norms
B. Present oneself in a favorable light, conforming to societal expectations
C. Engage in social loafing
D. Exhibit deindividuation in a group setting
The social desirability bias is the tendency to present oneself in a favorable light, conforming to societal expectations.
A. Reducing in-group bias
B. Enhancing out-group favoritism
C. Downplaying the importance of group membership
D. Emphasizing the similarities between ingroups and outgroups
According to social identity theory, individuals may enhance their self-esteem by favoring their ingroup and discriminating against outgroups.
A. Personal beliefs about oneself
B. Cognitive shortcuts or generalizations about a group
C. Norms governing social behavior
D. The process of self-fulfilling prophecies
A stereotype is a cognitive shortcut or generalization about a group of people, often based on oversimplified beliefs or assumptions.
A. Social exchange theory
B. Social identity theory
C. Social comparison theory
D. Equity theory
Social comparison theory suggests that individuals are motivated to maintain a positive social identity and will engage in intergroup comparisons to achieve this.
A. Attribute success to external factors
B. Form a positive impression of an individual based on a single positive trait
C. Resist social influence
D. Exhibit group polarization
The halo effect is the tendency to form a positive impression of an individual based on a single positive trait or characteristic.
A. Passionate and intense emotions
B. Deep affection, friendship, and commitment
C. A short-term romantic attraction
D. Obsessive and possessive behaviors
Companionate love is characterized by deep affection, friendship, and commitment, rather than intense passionate emotions.
A. Actor-observer bias
B. Self-serving bias
C. Confirmation bias
D. In-group bias
The actor-observer bias involves attributing one's own positive actions to internal factors and negative actions to external factors.
A. In-group bias
B. Group polarization
C. Contradictory beliefs or attitudes
D. The mere exposure effect
Cognitive dissonance involves the discomfort arising from holding contradictory beliefs or attitudes, leading to a desire for consistency.
A. Making a large request, followed by a smaller request
B. Making a small request, followed by a larger request
C. Making a single large request
D. Making a single small request
The door-in-the-face technique involves making a large request, expecting it to be refused, and then presenting a smaller, more reasonable request.
A. Social exchange theory
B. Social identity theory
C. Equity theory
D. Social comparison theory
Equity theory suggests that individuals are motivated to maintain a state of fairness or equity in their relationships, seeking a balance in give-and-take.
A. Social exchange theory
B. Elaboration likelihood model of persuasion
C. Social comparison theory
D. Social facilitation
The central route and peripheral route are concepts associated with the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion, representing different ways people process information.
A. Favor members of one's own group over members of other groups
B. Exhibit conformity to authority figures
C. Reject group norms in favor of individual autonomy
D. Resist social influence
Ingroup bias is the tendency to favor members of one's own group over members of other groups.
A. Always leads to aggression
B. Never leads to aggression
C. Can lead to aggression under certain conditions
D. Is unrelated to aggression
The frustration-aggression hypothesis suggests that frustration can lead to aggression under certain conditions.
A. Conformity
B. Social loafing
C. Deindividuation
D. Groupthink
Group polarization is closely related to the phenomenon of groupthink, as both involve group decision-making processes.
A. Perceive members of one's own group as more diverse than members of other groups
B. Perceive members of other groups as more diverse than members of one's own group
C. Overestimate similarities among outgroup members
D. Exhibit social loafing in intergroup settings
The out-group homogeneity effect is the tendency to perceive members of other groups as more homogeneous (similar) than members of one's own group.
A. Social facilitation
B. Social loafing
C. Group polarization
D. Deindividuation
Social facilitation is the tendency for individuals to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others, exerting more effort in a group.
A. Achieving personal goals through hard work
B. Expectations about others leading to behaviors that elicit the expected outcome
C. Resisting social influence
D. Exhibiting social loafing in a group
The self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when expectations about others lead to behaviors that elicit the expected outcome.
A. Prefer members of one's own group over members of other groups
B. Favor members of other groups over members of one's own group
C. Reject group norms in favor of individual autonomy
D. Exhibit social loafing in a group setting
Ingroup favoritism is the tendency to prefer members of one's own group over members of other groups.
A. Social facilitation
B. Social loafing
C. Deindividuation
D. Group polarization
Social facilitation involves performing better on tasks in the presence of others, especially when the task is not well-learned or is unfamiliar.
A. Conform to group norms
B. Resist social influence and regain lost freedoms
C. Engage in social loafing
D. Exhibit group polarization
Reactance is the motivation to resist social influence and regain lost freedoms when individuals perceive a threat to their personal freedom.
A. Social facilitation
B. Social exchange theory
C. Social identity theory
D. Groupthink
Ingroup/outgroup dynamics are central to the understanding of social identity theory, emphasizing the importance of group membership in shaping individuals' identities.
A. Social facilitation
B. Social loafing
C. Conformity
D. Deindividuation
Conformity is the process of adjusting one's behavior or thinking to coincide with a group standard.
A. One has control over external events
B. One lacks control over personal outcomes
C. Illusions can be controlled through cognitive processes
D. External factors determine individual outcomes
The illusion of control is the belief that one has control over external events, even when outcomes are determined by chance.
A. The tendency to resist conformity
B. The degree of attraction and unity among group members
C. The fear of confirming negative stereotypes
D. The tendency to engage in social loafing
Cohesiveness in a group refers to the degree of attraction and unity among group members, promoting a sense of
A. Consciousness
B. Mental processes
C. Observable behavior
D. Unconscious desires
Behavioral psychology emphasizes the study of observable behavior.
A. John B. Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. John Locke
B.F. Skinner coined the term "operant conditioning."
A. Extinction
B. Spontaneous recovery
C. Association with an unconditioned stimulus
D. Discrimination
In classical conditioning, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through association with an unconditioned stimulus.
A. Understanding the unconscious mind
B. Studying mental representations
C. Observing and analyzing behavior
D. Exploring cognitive processes
The primary focus of behaviorism is observing and analyzing behavior.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
John B. Watson is known for the "Little Albert" experiment.
A. Adding a pleasant stimulus to increase a behavior
B. Removing an aversive stimulus to decrease a behavior
C. Adding an aversive stimulus to increase a behavior
D. Removing a pleasant stimulus to decrease a behavior
Positive reinforcement involves adding a pleasant stimulus to increase a behavior.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
Edward Thorndike proposed the law of effect.
A. Conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus
B. Unconditioned stimulus is presented without the conditioned stimulus
C. Conditioned response is extinguished
D. Unconditioned response is extinguished
Extinction in classical conditioning occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus.
A. Reinforcing behaviors that are increasingly similar to the desired behavior
B. Reinforcing any behavior to increase its frequency
C. Punishing undesirable behaviors to decrease their occurrence
D. Establishing a hierarchy of needs
Shaping in behaviorism involves reinforcing behaviors that are increasingly similar to the desired behavior.
A. John B. Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
B.F. Skinner introduced the concept of reinforcement schedules in operant conditioning.
A. Responding to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus
B. Responding only to the original conditioned stimulus
C. Ignoring any stimuli not directly associated with the unconditioned stimulus
D. Reducing the strength of a conditioned response
Stimulus generalization in classical conditioning involves responding to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus.
A. Antecedent, Behavior, Consequence
B. Association, Behavior, Conditioning
C. Attention, Behavior, Consequence
D. Aversive, Behavior, Control
In behavior analysis, ABC stands for Antecedent, Behavior, and Consequence.
A. John B. Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
Albert Bandura developed the concept of social learning theory, emphasizing observational learning.
A. Spontaneous recovery
B. Stimulus generalization
C. Discrimination
D. Operant conditioning
Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of a conditioned response after a period of extinction.
A. Increasing responsiveness to a repeated stimulus
B. Decreasing responsiveness to a repeated stimulus
C. Forming associations between stimuli
D. Developing conditioned responses
Habituation, according to behaviorism, involves decreasing responsiveness to a repeated stimulus.
A. Chaining
B. Shaping
C. Modeling
D. Extinction
Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
Albert Bandura is known for the "Bobo doll" experiment, illustrating observational learning in aggression.
A. Generalization
B. Discrimination
C. Extinction
D. Habituation
Extinction in classical conditioning involves weakening a conditioned response by presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.
A. Reinforcing one's own behavior
B. Observing and imitating the reinforcement or punishment of others
C. Direct reinforcement by an authority figure
D. Reinforcing behaviors of a similar nature
Vicarious reinforcement in social learning theory involves observing and imitating the reinforcement or punishment of others.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
B.F. Skinner is associated with the development of the "token economy" as a form of operant conditioning.
A. Reinforcing undesirable behaviors
B. Pairing an aversive stimulus with a desirable one
C. Punishing a conditioned response
D. Reinforcing behaviors similar to the desired behavior
Counterconditioning involves pairing an aversive stimulus with a desirable one to change behavior.
A. Exploring unconscious desires
B. Analyzing mental representations
C. Modifying observable behavior
D. Understanding cognitive processes
The primary focus of behavior modification is modifying observable behavior.
A. John B. Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
Edward Thorndike proposed the "law of exercise."
A. Shaping behavior through reinforcement
B. Observing and imitating the behavior of others
C. Pairing stimuli to create conditioned responses
D. Reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior
Modeling in social learning theory involves observing and imitating the behavior of others.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
B.F. Skinner developed the concept of negative reinforcement in operant conditioning.
A. Phobias
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Depression
D. Bipolar disorder
Desensitization is often used in the treatment of phobias, involving gradual exposure to feared stimuli.
A. John B. Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
Edward Thorndike introduced the concept of "habit strength" as a factor in the strength of the stimulus-response association.
A. Responding to similar stimuli as the conditioned response
B. Responding only to the original conditioned stimulus
C. Ignoring any stimuli not directly associated with the unconditioned stimulus
D. Reducing the strength of a conditioned response
Discrimination in classical conditioning refers to responding only to the original conditioned stimulus, not to similar stimuli.
A. John B. Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
Edward Thorndike proposed the idea of "stimulus-response bonds" as the basis for learning in behaviorism.
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Positive punishment
D. Negative punishment
Negative reinforcement in operant conditioning involves the removal of an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior recurring.
A. Depression
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Anxiety disorders
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Systematic desensitization is commonly used in the treatment of anxiety disorders, involving gradual exposure to feared stimuli.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
Edward Thorndike is known for the "law of effect."
A. Gradual exposure to feared stimuli
B. Reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior
C. Intense and prolonged exposure to feared stimuli
D. Shaping behavior through reinforcement
Flooding in behavior therapy involves intense and prolonged exposure to feared stimuli to reduce anxiety.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
B.F. Skinner introduced the concepts of escape learning and avoidance learning in operant conditioning.
A. Habituation
B. Shaping
C. Extinction
D. Modeling
Extinction in behaviorism involves extinguishing a learned behavior by no longer reinforcing it.
A. Pairing a desirable stimulus with an aversive one
B. Pairing an aversive stimulus with a desirable one
C. Shaping behavior through reinforcement
D. Observing and imitating the behavior of others
Aversive conditioning involves pairing an aversive stimulus with a desirable one to reduce the likelihood of a behavior.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
B.F. Skinner developed the theory of radical behaviorism, emphasizing the role of the environment in shaping behavior.
A. Spontaneous recovery
B. Extinction
C. Stimulus generalization
D. Counterconditioning
Extinction in classical conditioning involves the presentation of an unconditioned stimulus without the conditioned stimulus, weakening the response.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
B.F. Skinner is known for the concept of "stimulus control" in behaviorism.
A. Depression
B. Anxiety disorders
C. Schizophrenia
D. Bipolar disorder
Token economy is often applied in the management of schizophrenia, using tokens as reinforcement for desired behaviors.
A. Fixed ratio schedule
B. Variable ratio schedule
C. Fixed interval schedule
D. Continuous reinforcement
Continuous reinforcement in operant conditioning involves reinforcing a behavior every time it occurs.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
B.F. Skinner is associated with the development of behavior therapy and the application of operant conditioning principles in clinical settings.
A. Shaping behavior through reinforcement
B. Reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior
C. Establishing stimulus-response bonds
D. Connecting individual behaviors into a complex sequence
Chaining in behaviorism involves connecting individual behaviors into a complex sequence through reinforcement.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
B.F. Skinner proposed the concept of behavior modification and its application in clinical settings.
A. Spontaneous recovery
B. Extinction
C. Stimulus generalization
D. Counterconditioning
Extinction in classical conditioning involves presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus, weakening the response.
A. Reinforcing any behavior to increase its frequency
B. Establishing stimulus-response bonds
C. Modifying observable behavior through reinforcement
D. Applying reinforcement based on desired behaviors and contingencies
Contingency management in behavior therapy involves applying reinforcement based on desired behaviors and contingencies.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Tolman
Edward Tolman introduced the concept of latent learning and emphasized the role of cognitive processes in behavior.
A. Shaping behavior through reinforcement
B. Establishing agreements regarding behavior and consequences
C. Pairing an aversive stimulus with a desirable one
D. Observing and imitating the behavior of others
Behavioral contracting involves establishing agreements regarding behavior and consequences to modify behavior.
A. Fixed ratio schedule
B. Variable ratio schedule
C. Fixed interval schedule
D. Continuous reinforcement
Variable ratio schedule in operant conditioning involves reinforcing a behavior after a variable number of occurrences.
A. John B. Watson
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Thorndike
Edward Thorndike proposed the idea of "stimulus-response connections" as the basis for learning in behaviorism.
A. Depression
B. Anxiety disorders
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Behavioral rehearsal is often used in the treatment of anxiety disorders, involving practicing adaptive behaviors.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
B.F. Skinner developed the concept of behavioral self-control and its application in modifying one's own behavior.
A. Spontaneous recovery
B. Extinction
C. Stimulus generalization
D. Counterconditioning
Extinction in classical conditioning involves the reduction or disappearance of a conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is presented alone.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Mowrer
Mowrer is known for the "two-factor theory of avoidance learning," which integrates classical and operant conditioning in avoidance behavior.
A. Fixed ratio schedule
B. Variable ratio schedule
C. Fixed interval schedule
D. Continuous reinforcement
Fixed ratio schedule in operant conditioning involves reinforcing a behavior after a fixed number of occurrences.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Albert Bandura
B.F. Skinner is associated with the concept of behavioral assessment and the use of behavioral observations in clinical settings.
A. Responding to similar stimuli as the conditioned response
B. Responding only to the original conditioned stimulus
C. Ignoring any stimuli not directly associated with the unconditioned stimulus
D. Reducing the strength of a conditioned response
Stimulus discrimination in classical conditioning refers to responding only to the original conditioned stimulus, not to similar stimuli.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. John B. Watson
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. Edward Tolman
B.F. Skinner introduced the concept of response deprivation in behavior modification, highlighting the role of restricted access to reinforcing activities.
A. Fixed ratio schedule
B. Variable ratio schedule
C. Fixed interval schedule
D. Continuous reinforcement
Fixed interval schedule in operant conditioning involves reinforcing a behavior after a fixed time interval.
A. Depression
B. Anxiety disorders
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Behavioral activation is often used in the treatment of depression, involving engaging in rewarding activities to improve mood.
A. Uniqueness
B. Deviance from cultural norms
C. Commonality
D. Conformity to societal expectations
Abnormal behavior is often defined by deviance from cultural norms.
A. Personality types
B. Psychological disorders
C. Cognitive processes
D. Human development stages
The DSM-5 is a classification system for psychological disorders.
A. Study of the mind
B. Classification of psychological disorders
C. Scientific study of psychological disorders
D. Treatment of psychological disorders
Psychopathology is the scientific study of psychological disorders.
A. Biological
B. Behavioral
C. Psychodynamic
D. Humanistic
The psychodynamic perspective emphasizes unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences.
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Specific phobia
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
A specific and irrational fear is characteristic of a specific phobia.
A. The presence of two or more psychological disorders in an individual
B. The coexistence of physical and psychological disorders
C. The presence of a single psychological disorder
D. The development of new disorders over time
Comorbidity refers to the presence of two or more psychological disorders in an individual.
A. Mood
B. Perception, thought, and behavior
C. Anxiety levels
D. Memory and learning
Schizophrenia is characterized by disturbances in perception, thought, and behavior.
A. Biological and environmental factors
B. Genetic and cognitive factors
C. Neurotransmitter imbalances
D. Childhood trauma and societal expectations
The diathesis-stress model suggests that disorders result from the interaction of biological and environmental factors.
A. Periods of intense energy and euphoria
B. Persistent sadness and loss of interest or pleasure
C. Excessive worry and fear
D. Disorganized thinking and hallucinations
Major depressive disorder is characterized by persistent sadness and loss of interest or pleasure.
A. Social anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Agoraphobia
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
The intense fear and avoidance of situations characterize agoraphobia.
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Bipolar disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder involves persistent obsessions and compulsions.
A. Multiple personality disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Antisocial personality disorder
Dissociative identity disorder was formerly known as multiple personality disorder.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Panic disorder is characterized by sudden and uncontrollable attacks of intense fear.
A. Genetic factors
B. Unconscious conflicts
C. Thought patterns and behaviors
D. Neurotransmitter imbalances
The cognitive-behavioral perspective emphasizes thought patterns and behaviors in psychological disorders.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Social anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Agoraphobia
Social anxiety disorder involves an intense fear of negative evaluation in social situations.
A. Alternating periods of depression and mania
B. Persistent low mood and loss of interest
C. Excessive worry and fear
D. Disorganized thinking and hallucinations
Bipolar disorder involves alternating periods of depression and mania.
A. Personal weaknesses
B. Biological illnesses
C. Behavioral abnormalities
D. Unconscious conflicts
The medical model suggests treating psychological disorders as biological illnesses.
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. GABA
Serotonin is often implicated in mood disorders like depression.
A. Excessive worry and fear
B. Hallucinations and delusions
C. Disregard for the rights of others
D. Intense and irrational fears
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others.
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by persistent patterns of disregard for others' rights.
A. Biological, psychological, and social factors
B. Genetic and environmental factors
C. Neurotransmitter imbalances
D. Unconscious conflicts and early experiences
The biopsychosocial model suggests that disorders result from the interplay of biological, psychological, and social factors.
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Avoidant personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder involves an exaggerated sense of self-importance and a constant need for attention.
A. Biological factors
B. Unconscious conflicts
C. Personal growth and self-actualization
D. Neurotransmitter imbalances
The humanistic perspective emphasizes personal growth and self-actualization.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Bipolar disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder involves recurrent, intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors.
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by unstable relationships and self-image.
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Schizophrenia
Bipolar disorder involves extreme mood swings, including depression and mania.
A. Intrusive memories
B. Hyperarousal
C. Hypersomnia
D. Avoidance of reminders
Hypersomnia is not a symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
A. Depression and anxiety disorders
B. Autism spectrum disorder and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
C. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder
Neurodevelopmental disorders include conditions like autism spectrum disorder and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
A. Cognitive therapy
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Systematic desensitization
D. Behavioral therapy
Systematic desensitization involves exposing individuals to their feared objects or situations in a controlled manner.
A. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Bipolar disorder
Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by repetitive, stereotyped movements or speech patterns and a resistance to change.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobia
Specific phobia involves a persistent and unrealistic fear of a specific object or situation, leading to avoidance.
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Avoidant personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder involves excessive attention-seeking, dramatic behavior, and intense emotions.
A. A pervasive pattern of disregard for others' rights
B. Intense and unstable relationships
C. A lack of interest in social relationships and emotional coldness
D. Exaggerated self-importance
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships and emotional coldness.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Humanistic therapy
C. Cognitive therapy
D. Behavioral therapy
Cognitive therapy focuses on changing irrational thoughts and beliefs to alleviate emotional distress.
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. Hoarding disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Panic disorder
Hoarding disorder involves persistent difficulty discarding possessions, regardless of their actual value.
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect.
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar I disorder
C. Bipolar II disorder
D. Cyclothymic disorder
The presence of both manic and depressive episodes indicates Bipolar I disorder.
A. The coexistence of multiple psychological disorders
B. A lack of awareness or insight into one's own mental condition
C. Excessive worry and fear about a specific object or situation
D. The experience of physical symptoms without a medical cause
Anosognosia refers to a lack of awareness or insight into one's own mental condition.
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder involves a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often involving criminal behavior.
A. Behavioral therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Psychoanalysis
D. Humanistic therapy
Psychoanalysis encourages individuals to explore and gain insight into unconscious conflicts.
A. Have an exaggerated sense of self-importance
B. Seek attention and be emotionally expressive
C. Fear rejection and avoid social interactions
D. Display impulsive and reckless behavior
Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a fear of rejection and avoidance of social interactions.
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking are characteristic of schizophrenia.
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Specific phobia
D. Agoraphobia
Generalized anxiety disorder involves chronic worry and excessive anxiety about various aspects of life.
A. Have a pervasive pattern of instability in relationships
B. Display avoidant behavior and fear rejection
C. Exhibit an exaggerated sense of self-importance and a lack of empathy
D. Seek attention through dramatic behavior
Narcissistic personality disorder involves an exaggerated sense of self-importance and a lack of empathy.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Interpersonal therapy
Cognitive-behavioral therapy involves identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors to promote well-being.
A. Reduce anxiety and distress
B. Seek attention and approval
C. Enhance mood and pleasure
D. Avoid social situations
Compulsive behaviors in OCD are often performed to reduce anxiety and distress.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Existential therapy
Existential therapy emphasizes personal responsibility and the power of choice in creating a meaningful life.
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Binge-eating disorder
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
Anorexia nervosa involves a persistent and irrational fear of gaining weight, leading to restricted food intake.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Behavioral therapy
D. Interpersonal therapy
Behavioral therapy focuses on changing maladaptive behaviors through reinforcement and punishment.
A. Schizotypal personality disorder
B. Avoidant personality disorder
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Avoidant personality disorder involves social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D. Bipolar disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) involves recurrent intrusive memories, nightmares, and avoidance of reminders after a traumatic event.
A. Cognitive therapy
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Systematic desensitization
D. Behavioral therapy
Systematic desensitization involves exposing individuals to their feared objects or situations in a controlled and gradual manner.
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder involves difficulties with emotion regulation, impulsivity, and unstable interpersonal relationships.
A. Body dysmorphic disorder
B. Hoarding disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Panic disorder
Body dysmorphic disorder involves a preoccupation with one's appearance and a belief in defects or flaws.
A. Display extreme mood swings
B. Exhibit a lack of interest in social relationships
C. Have hallucinations and delusions
D. Be distrustful and suspicious of others
Paranoid personality disorder involves being distrustful and suspicious of others.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Interpersonal therapy
Cognitive therapy involves identifying and challenging distorted thought patterns and beliefs.
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Binge-eating disorder
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
Bulimia nervosa involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors.
A. Odd or eccentric behavior and difficulty forming close relationships
B. Intense and unstable relationships
C. A pervasive pattern of disregard for others' rights
D. A lack of interest in social relationships
Schizotypal personality disorder involves odd or eccentric behavior and difficulty forming close relationships.
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive and uncontrollable worry about a variety of events or activities.
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Behavioral therapy
D. Interpersonal therapy
Interpersonal therapy focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication patterns.
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Consciousness
The conscious mind is not part of the structures in the psychodynamic perspective.
A. Openness
B. Honesty
C. Conscientiousness
D. Extraversion
"Honesty" is not considered one of the Big Five personality traits.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
Self-efficacy is a central concept in social-cognitive theory.
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. Social comparison
C. Self-serving bias
D. Confirmation bias
Cognitive dissonance refers to the discomfort people feel when their attitudes and behaviors are inconsistent.
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Conscience
The Id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of desires.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
Social-cognitive theory emphasizes the influence of personal, behavioral, and environmental factors on personality.
A. Regression
B. Projection
C. Sublimation
D. Reaction formation
Projection involves attributing one's undesirable traits to others.
A. Confirmation bias
B. Self-serving bias
C. Fundamental attribution error
D. Hindsight bias
Confirmation bias involves seeking information that confirms existing beliefs.
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Identity vs. Role Confusion
Adolescence is the stage of "Identity vs. Role Confusion" according to Erikson's theory.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
Reciprocal determinism is a key concept in social-cognitive theory.
A. B.F. Skinner
B. Carl Rogers
C. Carl Jung
D. Sigmund Freud
Carl Jung proposed the concept of the collective unconscious.
A. Lack of empirical support
B. Overemphasis on unconscious conflicts
C. Ignoring the role of environmental factors
D. Relying too much on case studies
Trait theories are criticized for often ignoring the role of environmental factors in shaping personality.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
The self-concept is a central concept in humanistic theory.
A. Physiological needs
B. Safety needs
C. Esteem needs
D. Basic needs
Physiological needs must be satisfied before higher-level needs according to Maslow's hierarchy.
A. Prefer positive feedback
B. Accept vague or general personality descriptions as personally meaningful
C. Overestimate their own abilities
D. Engage in self-serving bias
The Barnum effect involves accepting vague or general personality descriptions as personally meaningful.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
The social-cognitive theory emphasizes the role of the self as a social product.
A. Oral stage
B. Anal stage
C. Phallic stage
D. Genital stage
The Oedipus or Electra complex occurs during the phallic stage of psychosexual development.
A. Psychodynamic
B. Humanistic
C. Trait
D. Social-cognitive
The MMPI is a trait-based personality assessment tool.
A. Attribute one's successes to internal factors and failures to external factors
B. Attribute one's successes to external factors and failures to internal factors
C. Attribute both successes and failures to external factors
D. Avoid making attributions about one's own behavior
The self-serving bias involves attributing successes to internal factors and failures to external factors.
A. Anxiety
B. Openness
C. Regression
D. Superego
Openness is one of the major dimensions of personality in trait theory.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
Self-actualization is central to humanistic theory, particularly Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A. Alfred Adler
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Albert Bandura
D. Abraham Maslow
Alfred Adler proposed the concept of the inferiority complex and compensation for feelings of inadequacy.
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Carl Rogers
C. Albert Bandura
D. Abraham Maslow
The idea of fulfilling one's potential is associated with Abraham Maslow.
A. Objective personality test
B. Projective personality test
C. Self-report personality test
D. Behavioral personality test
The Rorschach Inkblot Test is a projective personality test.
A. Pleasure principle
B. Reality principle
C. Moral principle
D. Social principle
The ego operates on the reality principle, balancing the demands of the id and the superego with reality.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
Conditional positive regard is associated with humanistic theory, particularly Carl Rogers.
A. MMPI
B. Rorschach Inkblot Test
C. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
D. NEO Personality Inventory
The Rorschach Inkblot Test uses ambiguous pictures to elicit responses that reveal unconscious thoughts and feelings.
A. Rorschach Inkblot Test
B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
C. NEO Personality Inventory
D. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
The MMPI-2 is an updated version of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
A. Control their unconscious desires
B. Fulfill their potential and become the best they can be
C. Adapt to changing environments
D. Perform specific tasks successfully
Self-efficacy is an individual's belief in their ability to perform specific tasks successfully.
A. Ambiguous pictures
B. Inkblots
C. Self-report questionnaires
D. Behavioral observations
The Thematic Apperception Test involves the interpretation of ambiguous pictures to reveal personality characteristics.
A. Openness
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extraversion
D. Neuroticism
Conscientiousness is associated with being organized, responsible, and reliable.
A. Psychodynamic theory
B. Humanistic theory
C. Social-cognitive theory
D. Trait theory
Introversion and extraversion are central concepts in trait theory, particularly in Eysenck's theory.
A. Observe and regulate their own behavior in social situations
B. Monitor their physiological responses to stress
C. Maintain a consistent self-concept
D. Resist conformity and social influence
Self-monitoring involves observing and regulating one's own behavior in social situations.
A. Repression
B. Sublimation
C. Projection
D. Compensation
Compensation is not one of Freud's defense mechanisms.
A. Internal factors for success and external factors for failure
B. External factors for success and internal factors for failure
C. Both success and failure to external factors
D. Success and failure to luck
The self-serving bias involves attributing success to internal factors and failure to external factors.
A. Trait theory
B. Psychodynamic theory
C. Humanistic theory
D. Social-cognitive theory
Psychodynamic theory emphasizes the role of unconscious conflicts, early childhood experiences, and the importance of the ego.
A. Lack of reliability
B. Lack of validity
C. Lack of objectivity
D. All of the above
Projective tests like the Rorschach often face criticism for lack of reliability, validity, and objectivity.
A. The stability of their personality traits
B. The influence of situational factors on behavior
C. The extent to which they can control events in their lives
D. The impact of genetic factors on behavior
Locus of control refers to an individual's belief about the extent to which they can control events in their lives.
A. Oedipus complex
B. Electra complex
C. Libido complex
D. Id complex
The Oedipus complex involves unconscious sexual desires for the parent of the opposite sex during the phallic stage.
A. Control their unconscious desires
B. Monitor and adjust their behavior to meet goals
C. Adapt to changing environments
D. Maintain a stable self-concept
Self-regulation involves the ability to monitor and adjust one's behavior to meet goals.
A. Unconditional positive regard
B. Self-actualization
C. The Barnum effect
D. Incongruence anxiety
Incongruence between self-concept and experiences leads to incongruence anxiety, according to Rogers.
A. Unconscious desires
B. Mental representation of the self
C. Locus of control
D. Introversion-extraversion continuum
A self-schema is a mental representation of the self.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
The MBTI classifies individuals into 16 personality types based on preferences in four dichotomies.
A. Narcissistic personality
B. Superiority complex
C. Psychosomatic disorder
D. Collective unconscious
Adler proposed that individuals with an inferiority complex may compensate by developing a superiority complex.
A. Resistance to social influence
B. Acting in accordance with one's internal values
C. Adjusting behavior to fit in with the expectations of a group
D. Assertiveness in social situations
Conformity involves adjusting behavior to fit in with the expectations of a group.
A. Self-actualization
B. Collective unconscious
C. Self-efficacy
D. Locus of control
Self-actualization is the motivation to fulfill one's potential according to humanistic theory.
A. Openness, Conscientiousness, Agreeableness
B. Narcissism, Machiavellianism, Psychopathy
C. Introversion, Neuroticism, Extraversion
D. Self-monitoring, Locus of control, Self-esteem
The dark triad includes narcissism, Machiavellianism, and psychopathy.
A. Belief in their ability to control events
B. Mental representation of the self
C. Emotional evaluation of their own worth
D. Level of introversion or extraversion
Self-esteem is the emotional evaluation of one's own worth.
A. Social influence
B. Personality traits
C. Observation or awareness of being observed
D. Cognitive dissonance
The Hawthorne effect involves modifying behavior in response to being observed or aware of being observed.
A. Novel and arousing experiences
B. Solitude and quiet environments
C. Consistency and predictability
D. Authority and structure
Extraverts are likely to seek novel and arousing experiences, according to Eysenck.
A. Projective personality assessment
B. Assessing personality disorders
C. Evaluating self-esteem
D. Measuring intelligence
The MMPI-2 is primarily used for assessing personality disorders.
A. Reinforcement
B. Self-efficacy
C. Expectancy
D. Locus of control
Self-efficacy plays a crucial role in observational learning and modeling behavior in social-cognitive theory.
A. Lack of cross-cultural validity
B. Lack of reliability
C. Ignoring the role of unconscious conflicts
D. Overemphasis on the role of genetics
The Big Five traits have faced criticism for lack of cross-cultural validity.
A. Sexual pleasure from the genitals
B. Pleasure from sucking and oral activities
C. Pleasure from bowel and bladder elimination
D. Sexual exploration and identification
The anal stage is associated with pleasure from bowel and bladder elimination.
A. Carl Rogers
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Albert Bandura
D. Sigmund Freud
Albert Bandura is associated with the concept of self-efficacy.
A. Control unconscious desires
B. Understand and manage one's own emotions and those of others
C. Resist conformity and social influence
D. Achieve self-actualization
Emotional intelligence involves understanding and managing one's own emotions and those of others.
A. Projective personality assessment
B. Trait-based personality assessment
C. Observing behavior in natural settings
D. Assessing locus of control
The California Q-set is used for observing behavior in natural settings.
A. Personality traits
B. Observable behaviors
C. Social roles and expectations
D. Group membership
Social identity theory emphasizes categorization based on group membership.
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Carl Rogers
C. Albert Bandura
D. Erik Erikson
Carl Rogers is associated with the concept of self-concept in humanistic theory.
A. Leon Festinger
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Sigmund Freud
D. Abraham Maslow
Cognitive dissonance was first introduced by Leon Festinger.
A. Motor coordination
B. Memory formation
C. Visual perception
D. Emotional regulation
The hippocampus is crucial for memory formation.
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
Broca's area is located in the frontal lobe, usually in the left hemisphere.
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. GABA
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter linked to mood regulation.
A. Memory formation
B. Motor coordination
C. Speech production
D. Visual perception
The cerebellum is crucial for motor coordination and balance.
A. Visual information
B. Auditory information
C. Emotions and emotional memories
D. Motor commands
The amygdala plays a key role in the processing of emotions and emotional memories.
A. Vision
B. Hearing
C. Touch and body sensations
D. Motor control
The somatosensory cortex processes information related to touch and body sensations.
A. Muscle contraction and movement
B. Memory and learning
C. Mood regulation
D. Pain perception
Acetylcholine is involved in memory and learning processes.
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
Wernicke's area is usually located in the left temporal lobe and is associated with language comprehension.
A. Control motor coordination
B. Connect the two cerebral hemispheres
C. Regulate sleep-wake cycles
D. Process visual information
The corpus callosum connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres, facilitating communication between them.
A. Memory formation
B. Emotional regulation and decision-making
C. Auditory perception
D. Motor control
The prefrontal cortex is involved in emotional regulation and decision-making.
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
D. Reticular formation
The medulla oblongata is crucial for controlling vital autonomic functions.
A. Motor control and reward
B. Memory and learning
C. Mood regulation
D. Pain perception
Dopamine is involved in motor control and the brain's reward system.
A. Produce new neurons throughout life
B. Form new synapses and reorganize itself
C. Transmit electrical impulses rapidly
D. Maintain a constant structure over time
Neuroplasticity refers to the brain's ability to form new synapses and reorganize in response to experience.
A. Regulating body temperature and hunger
B. Processing visual information
C. Controlling voluntary movements
D. Modulating pain perception
The hypothalamus is involved in regulating body temperature, hunger, and other autonomic functions.
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Taste and smell
D. Spatial awareness and sensory integration
The parietal lobe is involved in spatial awareness and sensory integration.
A. Electroencephalography (EEG)
B. Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
C. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
D. Computerized Tomography (CT)
CT scans provide detailed images of the brain's structure.
A. Sympathetic nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Somatic nervous system
D. Central nervous system
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response.
A. Brain lobes
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Functional brain regions
D. Neural pathways
Brodmann areas classify functional regions of the cerebral cortex based on cytoarchitecture.
A. Myelination
B. Synaptogenesis
C. Neurogenesis
D. Neurotransmission
Neurogenesis refers to the formation of new neurons.
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
The primary motor cortex is located in the frontal lobe.
A. Motor control
B. Memory and learning
C. Inhibition of neural activity
D. Mood regulation
GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that reduces neural activity.
A. Corpus callosum is damaged or severed
B. Hippocampus undergoes atrophy
C. Prefrontal cortex is overactivated
D. Medulla oblongata malfunctions
The split-brain phenomenon results from the severing of the corpus callosum.
A. Visual perception
B. Speech production
C. Mathematical cognition
D. Auditory processing
The angular gyrus is involved in mathematical cognition and number processing.
A. Motor control
B. Memory and learning
C. Mood regulation and arousal
D. Pain perception
Norepinephrine is involved in mood regulation and arousal.
A. Formation of new neurons
B. Insulation of axons with a fatty substance
C. Synaptic transmission of neurotransmitters
D. Degeneration of neural connections
Myelination involves the insulation of axons with a fatty substance, improving signal conduction.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. GABA
The VTA is associated with the release of dopamine in the brain's reward system.
A. Short-term memory
B. Long-term memory
C. Procedural memory
D. Motor skills
The hippocampus is crucial for the consolidation of long-term memories.
A. Autonomic functions
B. Motor control and coordination
C. Emotional processing
D. Memory formation
The basal ganglia is primarily involved in motor control and coordination.
A. Language comprehension
B. Visual perception and processing
C. Memory consolidation
D. Motor coordination
The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for visual processing and perception.
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Parkinson's disease
C. Huntington's disease
D. Multiple sclerosis
Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra.
A. Language comprehension
B. Motor coordination
C. Memory formation
D. Language production
Broca's aphasia results in difficulty with language production.
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe.
A. Fatty insulation around axons
B. Cell body of a neuron
C. Branch-like structures that receive signals
D. Synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters
Dendrites are branch-like structures that receive signals from other neurons.
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Thyroid gland
D. Pancreas
Adrenaline is released from the adrenal medulla during the fight or flight response.
A. GABA
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
Dopamine is associated with motor control, reward, and pleasure.
A. Color vision
B. Light refraction and focusing
C. Depth perception
D. Visual processing in the retina
The cornea contributes to light refraction and focusing in the eye.
A. Hypothalamus
B. Cerebellum
C. Amygdala
D. Hippocampus
The cerebellum is part of the hindbrain and is involved in motor coordination.
A. The integration of signals from multiple neurons over time
B. The release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
C. The firing of action potentials along the axon
D. The polarization of the cell membrane
Temporal summation involves the integration of signals from multiple neurons over time.
A. Vision
B. Hearing
C. Motor coordination
D. Memory consolidation
The primary auditory cortex is responsible for processing auditory information.
A. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft
B. An action potential cannot be generated
C. A neuron is at rest and not transmitting signals
D. Dendrites receive incoming signals
The refractory period is the time during which a neuron cannot generate another action potential.
A. Part of the neuron that receives signals
B. Fatty insulation around the axon
C. Branch-like structures that receive signals
D. End of the axon where neurotransmitters are released
Axon terminals are the end of the axon where neurotransmitters are released into the synapse.
A. Rest and daydreaming
B. Intense concentration
C. Motor coordination
D. Emotional processing
The default mode network is active during rest, daydreaming, and mind-wandering.
A. Involuntary bodily functions
B. Sensory and motor functions
C. Emotional regulation
D. Processing visual information
The somatic nervous system is responsible for sensory and motor functions, including voluntary movements.
A. Charge of the cell membrane
B. Concentration of neurotransmitters
C. Size of the cell body
D. Number of dendritic branches
The action potential is a rapid change in the charge of the cell membrane.
A. State of inactivity
B. Readiness to generate an action potential
C. Ability to release neurotransmitters
D. Threshold for firing
The resting potential is the state of a neuron when it is ready to generate an action potential.
A. Motor commands
B. Sensory information
C. Memory consolidation
D. Emotional regulation
The thalamus is a relay station for sensory information to the cerebral cortex.
A. Gap between dendrites and the cell body
B. Space between neurons where neurotransmitters are released
C. Insulation around the axon
D. Fatty layer covering the neuron
The synaptic cleft is the space between neurons where neurotransmitters are released.
A. Procedural skills
B. Emotional experiences
C. Language comprehension
D. Motor coordination
The hippocampus is crucial for the formation of memories, particularly emotional experiences.
A. Resting potential
B. Temporal summation
C. Spatial summation
D. Integration
The axon hillock integrates signals and determines whether an action potential is generated.
A. Motor coordination
B. Emotional regulation and memory
C. Visual perception
D. Auditory processing
The limbic system is involved in emotional regulation and memory.
A. Basic sensory and motor functions
B. Higher cognitive functions and integration
C. Autonomic functions
D. Emotional processing
Association areas of the cortex are responsible for higher cognitive functions and integration.
A. Retina to the thalamus
B. Cornea to the lens
C. Pupil to the iris
D. Cochlea to the brainstem
The optic nerve transmits visual information from the retina to the thalamus.
A. Mood and sleep
B. Motor coordination
C. Memory consolidation
D. Appetite and thirst
The serotonergic system is involved in the regulation of mood and sleep.
A. A shift in the cell membrane charge toward negative values
B. An increase in the resting potential
C. The release of neurotransmitters
D. A shift in the cell membrane charge toward positive values
Depolarization involves a shift in the cell membrane charge toward positive values, leading to an action potential.
A. Vision
B. Hearing
C. Taste
D. Smell
The gustatory cortex processes information related to taste.
A. Release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
B. Recycling of neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic neuron
C. Inhibition of action potentials
D. Formation of new synapses
Reuptake involves the recycling of neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic neuron.
A. Motor coordination
B. Emotional regulation
C. Decision-making and planning
D. Memory consolidation
The prefrontal cortex is involved in decision-making, planning, and other executive functions.
A. Autonomic functions
B. Motor coordination
C. Emotional processing
D. Observing and imitating others
Mirror neurons are involved in observing and imitating the actions of others.
A. An increase in the cell membrane charge toward positive values
B. A decrease in the resting potential
C. The release of neurotransmitters
D. An increase in the resting potential
Hyperpolarization involves an increase in the resting potential, making it more negative.
A. Auditory processing
B. Motor coordination
C. Pain perception
D. Memory consolidation
The periaqueductal gray is involved in the modulation of pain perception.
A. Biological and social factors
B. Physical and mental health
C. Genetics and environment
D. All of the above
Health psychology explores the interactions between biological, social, and psychological factors.
A. Sympathetic nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Somatic nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system
The stress response activates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to the "fight or flight" reaction.
A. Biological, psychological, and social factors
B. Genetic factors alone
C. Mental health exclusively
D. Social factors only
The biopsychosocial model considers the combined influence of biological, psychological, and social factors on health.
A. Weight loss
B. Cardiovascular disease
C. Improved immune function
D. Reduced inflammation
Chronic stress is associated with an elevated risk of cardiovascular diseases.
A. Attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control
B. Genetics and environment
C. Biological factors only
D. Peer pressure
The Theory of Planned Behavior posits that behavior is influenced by attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control.
A. The stability of their personality traits
B. The influence of situational factors on behavior
C. The extent to which they can control their health outcomes
D. The impact of genetic factors on behavior
Health locus of control refers to an individual's belief about the extent to which they can control their health outcomes.
A. Increased stress
B. Poor mental health
C. Better health outcomes
D. Reduced coping abilities
Social support theory posits that strong social connections are associated with better health outcomes.
A. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
B. Denial, acceptance, action, relapse, maintenance
C. Anxiety, depression, resilience, adaptation
D. Observation, imitation, reinforcement, habituation
The stages of health behavior change include precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.
A. Accumulation of chronic stress and its physiological effects
B. Genetic predisposition to stress-related disorders
C. Impact of acute stress on the body
D. Adaptive responses to stress
Allostatic load represents the cumulative impact of chronic stress on physiological systems.
A. Health Belief Model
B. Social Cognitive Theory
C. Transtheoretical Model
D. Ecological Systems Theory
The Health Belief Model emphasizes perceived susceptibility, severity, benefits, and barriers in predicting health behavior change.
A. The ability to read medical textbooks
B. Understanding and using health information to make informed decisions
C. Knowledge of specific illnesses
D. Physical fitness
Health literacy involves understanding and using health information to make informed decisions about one's health.
A. Chronic stress
B. Acute stress
C. Positive events
D. Neutral stimuli
Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome outlines the body's response to acute stress, including the alarm, resistance, and exhaustion stages.
A. Perceived susceptibility
B. Perceived severity
C. Perceived benefits
D. Perceived self-efficacy
Perceived self-efficacy is more central to Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory than the Health Belief Model.
A. Denial, acceptance, commitment
B. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
C. Anxiety, depression, resilience, adaptation
D. Observation, imitation, reinforcement, habituation
The Transtheoretical Model includes stages like precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.
A. Reducing stressors
B. Managing emotional responses to stress
C. Enhancing problem-solving skills
D. All of the above
Coping with stress involves a combination of reducing stressors, managing emotional responses, and enhancing problem-solving skills.
A. Psychological factors, the nervous system, and the immune system
B. Genetics and environmental factors
C. Physical health and mental health
D. Hormones and neurotransmitters
Psychoneuroimmunology explores the interactions between psychological factors, the nervous system, and the immune system.
A. Intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and amotivation
B. Biological factors alone
C. Social factors exclusively
D. Emotional factors
Self-determination theory proposes that motivation is influenced by intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and amotivation.
A. Differences in health outcomes between individuals of different ages
B. Differences in health outcomes based on socioeconomic factors
C. Genetic variations leading to health differences
D. Variations in health outcomes due to lifestyle choices
Health disparities refer to differences in health outcomes based on factors such as socioeconomic status.
A. Biological factors on health
B. Psychological factors on health
C. Social factors on health
D. Genetics on health
The placebo effect demonstrates the influence of psychological factors on health outcomes.
A. Adapting coping strategies based on the context
B. Relying on a single coping strategy
C. Ignoring stressors for better mental health
D. Avoiding all stressors
Coping Flexibility model highlights the importance of adapting coping strategies based on the context.
A. Actions that directly affect physical health
B. Genetic predispositions to diseases
C. Mental health practices
D. Social interactions
Health behavior refers to actions that directly affect physical health.
A. Genetic factors
B. Environmental influences
C. Cultural practices
D. Biological determinants
Social Cognitive Theory highlights the role of environmental influences, observational learning, and modeling.
A. The body's response to stress
B. The environmental event or situation causing stress
C. Genetic factors contributing to stress
D. Chronic stress
A stressor is the environmental event or situation that causes stress.
A. Belief in one's ability to perform specific health behaviors
B. Genetic predisposition to health outcomes
C. The impact of stress on mental health
D. Social support received
Self-efficacy in health psychology refers to the belief in one's ability to perform specific health behaviors.
A. Monitoring and gaining control over physiological functions
B. Genetic testing for health risks
C. Traditional medical interventions
D. Psychotropic medication
Biofeedback involves monitoring and gaining control over physiological functions such as heart rate or muscle tension.
A. Conventional Western medicine
B. Traditional Chinese medicine
C. Ayurveda
D. Naturopathy
Allopathic medicine is synonymous with conventional Western medicine.
A. Financial resources
B. Emotional and practical assistance from others
C. Health behaviors
D. Genetic predispositions
Perceived social support measures an individual's perception of emotional and practical assistance from others.
A. Physiological needs
B. Esteem needs
C. Cognitive needs
D. Aesthetic needs
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs posits that physiological needs, including health, form the foundation of motivation.
A. Positive or beneficial stress
B. Chronic stress
C. Acute stress
D. Neutral stress
Eustress is positive or beneficial stress that motivates and challenges an individual.
A. Compliance with medical treatments
B. The impact of genetics on health
C. The role of social support in health
D. Traditional healing practices
The health belief model was initially developed to understand compliance with medical treatments.
A. Identifying and addressing mental disorders
B. Enhancing positive emotions and well-being
C. Suppressing negative emotions
D. Ignoring psychological factors in health
Positive psychology aims to enhance positive emotions, well-being, and strengths.
A. External control over behavior
B. Internal processes for goal-setting and behavior change
C. Genetic factors in health outcomes
D. Cultural influences on health
Self-regulation theory highlights internal processes for setting goals and making behavior changes.
A. Maintain stability through physiological change
B. Resist any change to maintain homeostasis
C. Adapt to a single stressor
D. Ignore external stressors
Allostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain stability through physiological change in response to stressors.
A. Enhancing cognitive abilities
B. Changing maladaptive thought patterns
C. Ignoring cognitive processes
D. Promoting positive thinking only
Cognitive restructuring involves changing maladaptive thought patterns for better mental and physical health.
A. Presented with overwhelming stressors perceived as uncontrollable
B. Experiencing moderate stressors
C. Experiencing acute stressors
D. Given ample resources to cope
Learned helplessness occurs when individuals perceive overwhelming stressors as uncontrollable.
A. Psychological factors and societal influences
B. Biological factors and environmental stressors
C. Genetic predispositions and cultural practices
D. Mental health and spiritual beliefs
Psychophysiological disorders involve the interaction between biological factors and environmental stressors.
A. Intrapersonal, interpersonal, organizational, community, and policy factors
B. Genetic factors alone
C. Psychological factors exclusively
D. Intrapersonal and interpersonal factors only
The social ecological model considers the influence of intrapersonal, interpersonal, organizational, community, and policy factors on health.
A. Avoid, adapt, assess, assist
B. Accept, analyze, apply, adapt
C. Acknowledge, assess, alter, avoid
D. Analyze, assess, avoid, adapt
The Four A's of Stress Management are avoid, adapt, assess, and assist.
A. Biological factors on health
B. Social and cultural factors on health
C. Individual characteristics alone
D. Genetic determinants
The sociocultural perspective emphasizes the impact of social and cultural factors on health.
A. Preventing illness and enhancing well-being
B. Treating diseases after they occur
C. Focusing solely on medical interventions
D. Ignoring mental health aspects
Health promotion involves preventing illness and enhancing overall well-being.
A. Intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and amotivation
B. Biological motivation and psychological motivation
C. Social motivation and individual motivation
D. Genetic motivation and environmental motivation
The self-determination theory distinguishes between intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and amotivation.
A. Financial stability
B. Physical health only
C. Overall well-being, including physical, mental, and social aspects
D. Genetic predispositions
Health-related quality of life measures an individual's perception of overall well-being, including physical, mental, and social aspects.
A. The ability to avoid stressors
B. The ability to bounce back from adversity
C. The absence of stressors
D. Genetic predispositions
Resilience refers to the ability to bounce back from adversity and adapt positively to stressors.
A. The impact of physical environment on health
B. The role of placebos in medical treatments
C. The psychological impact of location
D. The perception of pain and injury
Place theory in health psychology focuses on the perception of pain and injury in relation to specific locations in the body.
A. Perceive the behavior as low-risk
B. Perceive the behavior as high-risk
C. Ignore risk altogether
D. Rely solely on genetic factors
The risk perception theory suggests that individuals are more likely to engage in health behaviors if they perceive the behavior as high-risk.
A. Idealized standards
B. Genetic relatives
C. Historical figures
D. Immediate family members
Social comparison theory suggests that individuals evaluate their health by comparing themselves to idealized standards or others.
A. Actual treatment effects
B. Genetic factors
C. Expectations and psychological factors
D. Environmental influences
The placebo effect is associated with improvements in health due to expectations and psychological factors, not the actual treatment.
A. Genetic identity
B. Individual identity
C. Social group memberships in influencing behavior
D. Psychological identity
Social identity theory emphasizes the importance of social group memberships in influencing behavior and identity.
A. Why individuals seek medical treatment
B. The impact of genetics on health
C. The role of stress in health
D. Compliance with preventive health behaviors
The health belief model was initially developed to explain compliance with preventive health behaviors.
A. Changing thought patterns and behaviors to reduce stress
B. Ignoring cognitive processes in stress management
C. Relying solely on medical interventions
D. Avoiding stressors
Cognitive-behavioral stress management involves changing thought patterns and behaviors to reduce stress.
A. Biological, psychological, social, and spiritual factors in health
B. Biological factors alone
C. Genetic predispositions to diseases
D. Psychological and social factors only
The biopsychosocialspiritual model considers biological, psychological, social, and spiritual factors in health.
A. Treat existing illnesses
B. Prevent the onset of illnesses
C. Focus solely on mental health
D. Ignore genetic factors
Preventive health behaviors aim to prevent the onset of illnesses before they occur.
A. A linear process with fixed stages
B. An individual's genetic predisposition
C. A one-time event
D. A dynamic process involving stages of change
The transtheoretical model acknowledges that behavior change is a dynamic process involving stages of change.
A. Socioeconomic status, race, and gender
B. Genetic variations alone
C. Individual choices only
D. Biological factors exclusively
Health disparities may be influenced by factors such as socioeconomic status, race, and gender.
A. The ease or difficulty of performing a behavior
B. The impact of social norms on behavior
C. Genetic factors influencing behavior
D. The severity of perceived health risks
Perceived behavioral control in the Theory of Planned Behavior refers to the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior.
A. Fair distribution of environmental resources and risks
B. Ignoring environmental factors in health
C. Genetic justice
D. Inequitable distribution of health resources
Environmental justice in health psychology addresses the fair distribution of environmental resources and risks.
A. Genetic factors
B. Appraisal of stressors and coping resources
C. Social factors alone
D. Biological determinants
The cognitive-appraisal model suggests that stress is influenced by the appraisal of stressors and coping resources.
A. Real-time data collection on an individual's behavior and experiences
B. Long-term retrospective data collection
C. Ignoring individual variability
D. Genetic testing
Ecological momentary assessment involves real-time data collection on an individual's behavior and experiences.
A. Individual choices only
B. Societal factors on health
C. Biological factors exclusively
D. Genetic predispositions
The societal perspective in health psychology considers the impact of societal factors on health.
A. Social support, optimism, and coping skills
B. Genetic determinants alone
C. Chronic stressors
D. Avoidance of challenges
Resilience factors in health psychology include social support, optimism, and effective coping skills.
A. Clinical settings
B. Educational institutions
C. Work and organizational settings
D. Social gatherings
I-O Psychology focuses on understanding behavior in work and organizational settings.
A. Leadership styles
B. Job satisfaction and productivity
C. Employee motivation
D. Group dynamics and productivity
The Hawthorne Studies focused on the impact of group dynamics on productivity.
A. Analyzing employee performance
B. Evaluating leadership styles
C. Assessing organizational culture
D. Examining job tasks and requirements
Job analysis in I-O Psychology involves examining job tasks and requirements.
A. Recruitment
B. Training
C. Job analysis
D. Personnel selection
Personnel selection involves choosing employees based on qualifications and abilities.
A. Shared values, beliefs, and practices within an organization
B. Employee turnover rates
C. Leadership styles
D. Employee motivation
Organizational culture refers to shared values, beliefs, and practices within an organization.
A. Employee salaries
B. Employee benefits
C. Organizational policies and procedures
D. All of the above
Organizational justice involves perceptions of fairness in various aspects, including salaries, benefits, and policies.
A. Assessing the financial performance of an organization
B. Evaluating employee job performance
C. Determining market trends
D. Conducting job interviews
Performance appraisal involves evaluating the job performance of employees.
A. Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism
B. Authoritarianism, Machiavellianism, Narcissism, Psychopathy, Social dominance
C. Introversion, Neuroticism, Emotional stability, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness
D. Assertiveness, Creativity, Flexibility, Emotional intelligence, Locus of control
The "Big Five" personality traits are Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism.
A. Employee motivation
B. Physical and psychological aspects of the work environment
C. Leadership styles
D. Employee training
Ergonomics in I-O Psychology focuses on the physical and psychological aspects of the work environment.
A. Employee engagement
B. Procrastination
C. Theft, absenteeism, and sabotage
D. Employee satisfaction
Counterproductive work behavior includes actions like theft, absenteeism, and sabotage.
A. Assessing employee job performance
B. Identifying areas where employees require additional training
C. Evaluating organizational culture
D. Conducting job interviews
Training needs analysis involves identifying areas where employees require additional training.
A. Performance appraisal
B. Personnel selection
C. Training and development
D. Job analysis
Training and development involve helping employees develop the skills needed for their current or future jobs.
A. Salary, work environment, and job security
B. Leadership styles
C. Organizational policies
D. Employee turnover rates
Job satisfaction is associated with factors like salary, work environment, and job security.
A. Employee motivation and performance
B. Organizational culture
C. Personnel selection
D. Leadership styles
The Expectancy Theory in I-O Psychology focuses on the relationship between employee motivation and performance.
A. Personnel selection
B. Training and development
C. Recruitment
D. Performance appraisal
Recruitment involves attracting a pool of qualified applicants for a job.
A. The ability to control emotions and understand others' emotions
B. Employee turnover rates
C. Leadership styles
D. Employee motivation
Emotional intelligence in the workplace refers to the ability to control emotions and understand others' emotions.
A. Employee motivation
B. Employee turnover
C. Intention and behavior in the workplace
D. Leadership styles
The Theory of Planned Behavior can be applied to understand intention and behavior in the workplace.
A. Belief in one's ability to perform specific tasks
B. Employee turnover rates
C. Leadership styles
D. Employee motivation
Self-efficacy in the workplace refers to belief in one's ability to perform specific tasks.
A. Reducing job responsibilities
B. Modifying and redesigning one's own job
C. Ignoring organizational policies
D. Employee turnover
Job crafting involves modifying and redesigning one's own job for increased satisfaction.
A. Employee engagement
B. Employee turnover rates
C. The execution of core job responsibilities
D. Leadership styles
Task performance refers to the execution of core job responsibilities in the workplace.
A. Abraham Maslow
B. Frederick Herzberg
C. Douglas McGregor
D. B.F. Skinner
The Motivation-Hygiene Theory is associated with Frederick Herzberg.
A. Creating a homogeneous workforce
B. Celebrating differences in race, gender, and other characteristics
C. Ignoring cultural variations
D. Promoting discrimination
Workplace diversity focuses on celebrating differences in race, gender, and other characteristics.
A. Training and development
B. Personnel selection
C. Job satisfaction
D. Leadership styles
The zone of proximal development is associated with training and development.
A. Engaging in actions that go beyond formal job requirements
B. Employee turnover
C. Sabotaging organizational goals
D. Avoiding teamwork
Organizational citizenship behavior involves engaging in actions that go beyond formal job requirements.
A. The physical ceiling of the workplace
B. An invisible barrier limiting women's advancement in the workplace
C. A metaphor for employee turnover
D. Employee motivation
The Glass Ceiling phenomenon refers to an invisible barrier limiting women's advancement in the workplace.
A. Employee turnover and job performance
B. Organizational culture and employee values
C. Job analysis and recruitment
D. Employee motivation and leadership styles
Person-organization fit refers to the compatibility between organizational culture and employee values.
A. Perseverance and passion for long-term goals
B. Employee turnover rates
C. Leadership styles
D. Job satisfaction
Grit in the workplace relates to perseverance and passion for long-term goals.
A. Employees work hard individually
B. Employees reduce effort in a group setting
C. Employees enjoy their work
D. Leadership styles are effective
Social loafing occurs when employees reduce effort in a group setting.
A. The variety of tasks involved in a job
B. The impact of tasks on the organization
C. The extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work
D. Leadership styles in task management
Task identity in job design refers to the extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work.
A. Commuting to work using technology
B. Working remotely using communication technology
C. Traditional office work
D. Employee turnover
Telecommuting refers to working remotely using communication technology.
A. Communication styles
B. Team dynamics and interpersonal relationships
C. Leadership styles
D. Employee motivation
The Johari Window explores team dynamics and interpersonal relationships in the workplace.
A. Employee motivation
B. The quality of relationships between leaders and followers
C. Employee turnover rates
D. Organizational culture
Leader-member exchange (LMX) theory focuses on the quality of relationships between leaders and followers.
A. High levels of employee motivation
B. Chronic workplace stress leading to emotional exhaustion
C. Employee turnover
D. Job satisfaction
Burnout in the workplace refers to chronic workplace stress leading to emotional exhaustion.
A. Intrinsic motivation
B. Job security
C. Organizational culture
D. Employee turnover
Job crafting involves employees modifying their job tasks to enhance intrinsic motivation.
A. An individual's belief in their ability to perform specific tasks
B. The influence of external factors on one's life
C. The impact of organizational policies on motivation
D. Employee turnover rates
Locus of Control refers to the belief in the influence of external factors on one's life.
A. Maximizing employee turnover
B. Balancing work demands with personal and family responsibilities
C. Ignoring employee well-being
D. Promoting excessive work hours
Work-life balance aims at balancing work demands with personal and family responsibilities.
A. Salary and benefits
B. Leadership styles
C. Organizational policies
D. Job satisfaction and fairness
Equity theory explores perceptions of job satisfaction and fairness in the workplace.
A. Training new employees
B. Employee turnover
C. Assessing organizational culture
D. Leadership styles
Organizational socialization involves training new employees to adapt to the organizational culture.
A. Personnel selection
B. Succession planning
C. Employee training
D. Job analysis
Succession planning involves identifying high-potential employees for future leadership positions.
A. Employee motivation
B. Politeness and courtesy
C. Rude or disrespectful actions toward colleagues
D. Employee turnover
Workplace incivility includes rude or disrespectful actions toward colleagues.
A. Employee turnover rates
B. Leadership styles
C. Employee motivation
D. Employees' contentment with their jobs
Job satisfaction surveys are tools used to assess employees' contentment with their jobs.
A. The impact of job on organizational performance
B. Employee turnover rates
C. The extent to which employees have control over their work
D. Leadership styles
Job autonomy refers to the extent to which employees have control over their work.
A. Constructive criticism and feedback
B. Employee motivation
C. Repeated mistreatment or abusive behavior
D. Employee turnover rates
Workplace bullying involves repeated mistreatment or abusive behavior in the workplace.
A. Employees have clear expectations and responsibilities
B. Employees experience conflicting demands from different roles
C. Employee turnover rates are low
D. Leadership styles are consistent
Role conflict occurs when employees experience conflicting demands from different roles.
A. Legal agreements between employees and employers
B. The unwritten expectations and obligations between employees and employers
C. Employee turnover rates
D. Organizational policies
The Psychological Contract refers to the unwritten expectations and obligations between employees and employers.
A. Employee turnover rates
B. Intrinsic motivation and autonomy
C. Organizational policies
D. Leadership styles
Self-determination theory in the workplace emphasizes the importance of intrinsic motivation and autonomy.
A. The desire of employees to leave the organization
B. Employee motivation
C. Leadership styles
D. Organizational policies
Turnover intention refers to the desire of employees to leave the organization.
A. Inspiring and motivating followers
B. Focusing on individualized consideration
C. Contingent rewards and punishments
D. Emphasizing transformational change
Transactional leadership is characterized by contingent rewards and punishments.
A. Procrastination and absenteeism
B. Constructive feedback
C. Employee turnover rates
D. High levels of motivation
Counterproductive work behavior includes actions like procrastination and absenteeism.
A. Job performance
B. Leadership styles
C. Personal characteristics such as race or gender
D. Employee motivation
Workplace discrimination involves treating employees unfairly based on personal characteristics such as race or gender.
A. Employee motivation
B. The extent to which employees feel connected to their jobs and communities
C. Leadership styles
D. Employee turnover rates
Job embeddedness refers to the extent to which employees feel connected to their jobs and communities.
A. A commitment to individual goals
B. Commitment to the organization and its goals
C. Employee turnover rates
D. Leadership styles
Organizational commitment involves commitment to the organization and its goals.
A. Specific and challenging goals lead to higher performance
B. Goals should be vague and easily achievable
C. Employee turnover rates are unrelated to goal setting
D. Leadership styles are the only factor influencing performance
Goal-setting theory suggests that specific and challenging goals lead to higher performance.
A. Staying in the same job role for an extended period
B. Regularly moving employees to different job roles
C. Ignoring job responsibilities
D. Leadership styles
Job rotation involves regularly moving employees to different job roles.
A. The fit between organizational culture and employee values
B. The compatibility between job demands and employee skills
C. Leadership styles
D. Employee turnover rates
Person-job fit refers to the compatibility between job demands and employee skills.
A. Transactional exchanges and contingent rewards
B. Inspiring and motivating followers toward a shared vision
C. Punishments for non-compliance
D. A focus on individualized consideration
Transformational leadership is characterized by inspiring and motivating followers toward a shared vision.
A. Low levels of motivation
B. High levels of energy, enthusiasm, and commitment to work
C. Employee turnover rates
D. Leadership styles
Employee engagement is characterized by high levels of energy, enthusiasm, and commitment to work.
A. Ignoring employee performance
B. Improving performance and fostering employee development
C. Encouraging workplace discrimination
D. Employee turnover rates
Feedback in the workplace is essential for improving performance and fostering employee development.
A. Increasing the scope and variety of tasks within a job
B. Reducing the number of tasks within a job
C. Ignoring employee preferences
D. Leadership styles
Job enlargement involves increasing the scope and variety of tasks within a job.
A. Creating a risk-free environment for employees to express ideas and take risks
B. Ignoring employee well-being
C. Employee turnover rates
D. Leadership styles
Psychological safety in the workplace refers to creating a risk-free environment for employees to express ideas and take risks.